Really? Was testing to meet loan repayments supposed to have been done?
What about a case where the lender lent so much money that the repayments (even at existing interest rates then, without the 2% hike you mention ) were well out of reach of the borrower? For example, if a borrower was mentally unwell (and getting medical care for same) and borrowed so much from the bank that the repayments alone on this one loan were say €50,000 a year more than his total income, what then about the OP's question? Could the mortgage lender be sued for unrealistic loan approval? Surely the mortgage lender should - in its own interest, in the countries interest and in the interest of the lender - have checked to see if the loan was repayable? If it neglected to evaluate an applicants ability to repay, should it not be held responsible....otherwise, why were some / most applicants evaluated on their ability to repay, and this person not?