This is why the whole subject of tenancies confuses me.Details here. if there are other tenants you need their permission.
If a property has a tenancy agreement in place then how can the owner decide to let a vacant room to a Ukranian or anyone else for that matter? If the tenant/s are the parties with permission to occupy, does it not follow that they decide who occupies the vacant room and not the owner.
Once a tenancy is granted, the tenant or joint/multiple tenants are the individuals granted permission to occupy and if someone leaves the remaining tenants can continue without them, or the leaver can assign their interest but only with the owner's permission.
So any other occupant is actually a guest unless the owner agrees to update the parties to the lease. How could tenants take part in the Ukranian scheme without the owners permission?
I read recently on another forum that taking in any paying guest could be classed as commercial activity and a breach of the lease - is that right?