Brendan Burgess
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Why would one do that? That is imposing a preference where none exists.
Exactly.
And, in the case of a surplus, you are imposing a preference on those voters who chose not express a preference.
Brendan
Why would one do that? That is imposing a preference where none exists.
And, in the case of a surplus, you are imposing a preference on those voters who chose not express a preference.
I don't agree/see it as anybody having a view "imposed" on them. From the voters perspective, they have expressed a preference, which is that once their only preferred candidate is elected, they are indifferent to the other candidates or subsequent vote distribution. Should their candidate be eliminated, their vote becomes ineffective and does not effect the outcome of the rest of the election. This voter should be 100% satisfied.
The voter cannot feel imposed upon if the candidate they voted for gets elected.
In relation to the main question, could it be due to the fact that surpluses are distributed based on a 'sampling' basis, while votes from eliminated candidates are redistributed in their entirety?
There are no fractions of votes. A ballot paper either gets transferred or it doesn't.This is great for trying to clarify my argument.
I vote no. 1 for A, and make no further preference.
you vote no. 1 for A, and No. 2 for B.
A gets 5,000 votes, 1,000 above the quota of 4,000
So your vote goes
A: 0.8
B: 0.2
My vote should go
A: 0.8
non-transferable: 0.2
But instead, it goes
A: .08
and then the 0.2 is distributed among the remaining candidates.
This is obviously an extreme situation that wouldn't ever happen in reality but I don't think C or D necessarily get elected here.Say there are 4 seats and 5 candidates.
There are 1000 votes.
999 vote candidate A 1st pref only.
1 voter, votes A-E, 1-5 in order of preference.
The seats go to A,B,C & D.
Who is being imposed upon here? What is the fair outcome of this election?
Perhaps that they only get a single or two representatives as punishment for lack of understanding the electoral system?What is the fair outcome of this election?
Have to say I'm with Brendan on this issue - the 'non transferable' is just another 'candidate' in my view and should be allocated an appropriate proportion of votes when surpluses are being allocated...
As I have already contributed to the substantive point raised, I wont do further, but Brendan is repeating this example ad nauseam. It's a false equivalence. On elimination, the candidate is NOT elected, on the distribution of the surplus, the desired candidate IS elected. The voter who is non-transferable at either stage is fully satisfied. In the former case, its obvious why a voter would not be satisfied and would be absurd. You may as well say that because the turnout was only 50%, we'll "gross up" the first preferences to reflect the entire electorate. Absurd.But if we applied the grossing up used in the distribution of surpluses, the Transfer value would be "surplus"/total transferable votes
which would be 600/400
which is 1.5
The voter who is non-transferable at either stage is fully satisfied.
I think this is the point. We do not definitively have the perfect PR/STV system while the Kilties and Wallabies have a flawed system. I agree with Brendan that the K/W system is more logically consistent. It's not a big deal though and there are other aspects which can be questioned like taking the transfers from the top of the pile, rather than proportionately across all transfers or subsequent surpluses being transferred according to the last parcel that triggered the surplus, both of which presumably would be addressed if it was all done by computer.Interesting. I don't see the false equivalence and obviously the people who designed the far more logical Scottish and Australian systems don't see it either. They treat the surplus and the eliminated candidate's votes the same way.