We have an old rural house in need of major work we'd like to transfer ownership of to a niece at the current market value so she can do the work and apply for the available grants etc. CGT is minimal on our end.
She is not in a position to get a mortgage and we'd prefer to keep the arrangement within the family. Gifting is not option so we're trying to be creative.
We're thinking family loan paid back in installments probably with the first payment not due for at least a couple of years and paid back over 25-30 years. There would be a signed contract but in effect an unsecured loan.
Would such a deal pose problems with the conveyancing/solicitors or revenue?
I understand that if no interest were charged on the loan revenue would see that as a benefit to my niece and she would be liable on that on a yearly basis.
If there was to be an interest rate charged at well below market rates would revenue also see that as being a benefit?
Thanks.
She is not in a position to get a mortgage and we'd prefer to keep the arrangement within the family. Gifting is not option so we're trying to be creative.
We're thinking family loan paid back in installments probably with the first payment not due for at least a couple of years and paid back over 25-30 years. There would be a signed contract but in effect an unsecured loan.
Would such a deal pose problems with the conveyancing/solicitors or revenue?
I understand that if no interest were charged on the loan revenue would see that as a benefit to my niece and she would be liable on that on a yearly basis.
If there was to be an interest rate charged at well below market rates would revenue also see that as being a benefit?
Thanks.