The semantics of it saves you X amount in interest or is a guaranteed risk free return are financially correct but miss the point many make here.
All you are really doing is locking away your free cashflow in an asset that can't be realised unless you sell your home.
Looks like the OPs question has been lost in all the off topic back and forward.
+1Maybe in threads like the present one, we should refer people to this Key Post rather than rehash the argument again.
How on earth can you describe proper financial planning as "semantics"?
We are discussing wealth maximisation and wealth preservation. There is nothing "semantic" about it.
The mistake people are making is splitting their finances into separate silos, rather than taking a complete, holistic, view.
A mortgage may have a term of 20 years. But that is irrelevant. It is a convention and nothing more than that. So paying it off earlier or later doesn't mean very little.
The question is "how do I maximise and preserve my long-term wealth?"
The first principle is "Do not borrow to invest in equities".
If you have a loan on which you are paying market interest while you have equities, you are borrowing to invest in equities.
Much of the time you do this it will work out for you over the long term. But some of the time, the downside will be disaster.
Borrowing increases risk and the potential extra reward does not justify it.
Brendan
I disagree with your approach and reasoning on this.
I have no problem at all with that. Different people have different opinions.
We have a very substantive disagreement.
It is wrong to dismiss another person's opinion as "semantics"!
Consider that the Government launched an unlimited issue of savings certs earning 2.5% p.a. tax free. This is the equivalent to the savings in paying down your mortgage. But would it be right to advise that all of your savings capacity should go into these certs? (ignore sovereign risk in this thought experiment)
On @Dublinbay12 's point about overpayment of mortgage being a loss of access to the cash in case you need it in the future, would it not be possible to remortage?
Two scenarios:Hi Duke
I am not sure of your point here.
If you can borrow money at 2% and you can invest it for a guaranteed net return in excess of 2%, of course you should do it.
But you should not borrow at 2% to invest in a risky asset.
Brendan
And the term is, say 20 years - akin to what a mortgage might be. So youre locking it away for that period. This makes it less attractive.but the Government is paying 2.5% p.a. tax free on its An Post deposits
Ok Boss I won't labour my thought piece any more, but I do take it that in the hypothetical situation where the Government was offering a super generous 2.5% tax free interest you wouldn't put all you investible funds in it, though as I understand it you would put all your investible funds into paying down a mortgage.
Boss my tuppence worth. Of course you are right that financial economics would not support retail punters borrowing to invest. Two main reasons for that. The first is the asymmetry in tax treatment. Taxed on investment profits, no tax relief on interest. The second reason is that you are effectively suffering double charges on each side of your financial balance sheet.
But possibly your position is too absolutist. Consider that the Government launched an unlimited issue of savings certs earning 2.5% p.a. tax free. This is the equivalent to the savings in paying down your mortgage. But would it be right to advise that all of your savings capacity should go into these certs? (ignore sovereign risk in this thought experiment)
On @Dublinbay12 's point about overpayment of mortgage being a loss of access to the cash in case you need it in the future, would it not be possible to remortage?