the heat must be affecting me badly!!!
The Seller (A) paid the arrears to he OMC before the new owner (B) took possesion and completed the sale. The seller (A) used a third party company (C) to assist in the sale.
The third party company (C) which acted on behalf of the seller has now requested invoices detailing all the previsouly paid arrears to be issued to them so they can be passed onto the the new owner (B)....'presumably' so the new owner (B) can be made to pay for them. Why else would they need invoices at this stage? They openly stated that they would be doing this.
Maybe they are having a bad day at writing as well?
OK, this is what we did in a similar situation in work. A has a contract to pay the arrears to the OMC. A paid the arrears to the OMC. Presumably, A is the only person who can request a copy of the invoice. If a third party company, C, want a copy of the invoice, then they have the correct authorisation from A to let them request these copies from the OMC. Otherwise, if the third party company C wants a copy of the invoices then they have to request them from A, who then has to request them from the OMC, and pass them onto C.
Now, I don't know the legalities of the situation, it's just the way I break it down in my head, and the way I've seen it done in a similar (but not the same) situation.
Does the OMC issue copies of the invoices on request? I do not know if the could, should or are obliged to do this. I know the company I work for (for an example of a legal document) doesn't issue copies of our P60s, and they tell us every year to be careful of them as they won't be re-issued.
What the third party company C want with the invoices is outside your control. I wouldn't worry about legalities, that's A, B and Cs problem!! However, who is entitled to the original invoice, and who is entitled to copies is inside your control, I would just deal with that.