oh no no no you seem to be embarrassing yourself here qwerty. here is the link
http://www.trend-follower.com/index.php?option=com_content&task=view&id=12&Itemid=27
What markets do you participate in?
Stock indices, individual shares, interest rate products, government bonds, rental property, commercial property, currencies and all the main commodities such as gold, silver, crude oil, coffee, wheat, soybeans, sugar, cocoa, etc, etc.
of course he trades in individual shares. he has often said this.
and also the 40 week MA is the same as the 200 day MA. shipman does his analysis at the weeekends so he looks at the 40 week / 200 day MA as of closing price on friday. to put this issue to rest look at
http://books.google.ie/books?id=SYW...&hl=en&sa=X&oi=book_result&resnum=6&ct=result
which states in the middle of the page (for example using the popular 40 week(200 day) moving average, ) implying that the averages are the same thing.
its quite clear from reading the posts here that jimbob didnt think SB was ideally suited to trend following but quwety in fairness man, get your facts straight before you make posts like this one.
Ok Limerickboy/jimbob. you seem to have a few iussues with me here .
Ok - lets go through these one by one.
And before I start - i don't have it in for you or anything - but wha you are saying is simply incorrect.
Point 1
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Below is a quote you (jimbob) made in an earlier post.
"said in his book that you never ever go long in that kind or market until the 50 day MA goes above the 200 day MA> guess he broke his own rules"
Ok - lets get this staright.
This is factually incorrect.
I have read his books many times and he never mentions a system he uses where 50 day and 200 day daily moving averages crossover.
You are quite simply wromg with that quote.
Re-read his books.
He doesn't even nearly suggest anything like this.
Point 2
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Does shipman trade individual stocks?
Clrearly in that text you posted in that link he says he does.
However - the reality is this.
In the last 18 months at least, he has never trraded an individual stock.
And possibly many years have pased before he has done so.
As you are aware,he posts his positions each week on his website.
If you have been following it each week you will see he has never traded an individual stock since he started posting his positions - which was about 18 months ago.
And why doesn't he trade stocks?
I went to his course. The reaosn is that individual stocks are far less susceptible to trends than indices or commodities are.
Also - as part of the course you are allowed continual email contact with him.
I have queried him on this very subject over email and that was the reason he gave to me.
Also - with individual stocks you are dealing with management issues as opposed to comodities,etc.
As a trend follower he does not advise it.
So -i hope the fact that he told me this in a personal email puts that notion to bed.
That said - to be fair to you, he did say otherwise in that text you quoted me. So it is an understandable error on your part.
Shipman did misrepresent himself there.
Or maybe contradict himself is a better way of putting it.
Point 3
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You say that Spreadbetting isn't suited to trend following.
This statement to me is the most ludicrous you have made.
If i was to give an anaolgy, it would equate to advising someone at the race track that their horse has a better chance of winning if they back it through the tote rather than the bookie.
Obviously the vehicle you use to bet on teh horse does not in anyway effect the horses behaviour.
Likewise - regardless of what way you play the markets, it doiens't in any way effct how the market acts.
Teh fact is the markets trend.
Why on earth would using a spreadbetting company prevent you from taking advantage of thes trends?
WIth SB companies,you can place a bet in seconds.
Can you please explain that one to me
That statement has left me most confused.
Point 4
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200 day MA = 40 week MA.
Again - this is factually incorrect.
This statement from you clearly demonstrates that you actually do not understand what a moving average is or how it is alculated.
YEs - a 200 day and 40 week are often quite similar.
They are however rarely,if ever, identical.
You seem to be pushing this one on us.
Another poster on this thread has also said you are wrong with this point and they even gave you an example (which you chose to ignore)
I'm telling tou for a FACT that yo are wrong.
Before insisting that you are in fact correct, I would suggest you study how a moving average is calculated.
The conclusion you are coming to on teh basis of that link you provided is an incorrect conclusion.
In fact - i think it is clear (at least to someone who knows what a moving average is) that the point that link ws trying to gice was not say that teh 40 week MA and 200 day MA are identical - it was just saying that they are quite similar - which is truie.
They probably didn't express it in the clearest way posible though.
Believe me on this one - you are wrong.
In fact - let me give you an eample.
By your logic the 2 week MA is the same as the 10 day MA.(seeing as generally you seem to think you just multiply the weekly one by 5 to get the identical thing)
So lets say the closing price for teh 2 weeks are as follows:
Mon: 10
Tue: 20
Wed: 20
Thu: 20
Fri: 10
Mon: 10
Tue: 20
Wed: 20
Thu: 20
Fri: 10
So - what is the 10 day MA at the end of this period?
The answer is 16 (i.e. 10+20+20+20+10+10+20+20+20+10)/10
(i.e.the sum of the closing price each day divided by 10)
The 2 week MA in teh above example is 10 - and not 16 as you seem to think.
(i.e. 10+10)/2 (i.e.the sum of the closing price each week divided by 2)
There is no such thing as an equivalent weekly moving average to a corresponding daily average.
Thet are 2 different things.
There is not supposed to be corresponding weekly to daily moving averages.
I feel I can't spell it out any clearer than that for you !
If you're having trouble with that then you're in big trouble indeed for a man who said he is determined to become a full time trader.