The charge is levied against the owner of the property, and only in certain circumstances.
It could arguably be viewed as oppressive or arbitrary to subject a tenant to a charge over which he has no control. The very least that a landlord would have to do would be to set out in the lease that the property itself is subject to the household charge (rather than a vague catch-all term as given by way of example earlier in the thread), and then include a term that the tentant must indemnify against this specific charge.
In the absence of such clarity, it is unlikely that courts would allow a landlord to enforce the term, or eject a tenant for non-compliance, as the tenant has not specifically agreed to it, and cannot be expected to agree to things outside of his control.