Humpty Dumpty
Registered User
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Hypothetical question!
Person A sold the family home for specific reasons, little to no equity in it.
Role on 7 years later they want to buy again, but as a second time buyer they would obviously need 20%. But, say person A can only afford 10%.
Presumably the mortgage is now gone from credit score, how would a potential lender know that person A is not a first time buyer?
Person A sold the family home for specific reasons, little to no equity in it.
Role on 7 years later they want to buy again, but as a second time buyer they would obviously need 20%. But, say person A can only afford 10%.
Presumably the mortgage is now gone from credit score, how would a potential lender know that person A is not a first time buyer?