The usual practice is that he signs away his claim on the house and she agrees to pay the mortgage, which is what appears to have happened here.
But earlier @Brendan Burgess said...He is indemnified against all monies owed to the mortgage ( payments, arrears etc ). I agreed full responsibility for payment of the home loan.
Likewise I am indemnified to any loan payments, HP or arrears he has / may have
So, if the separation agreement/judicial separation is irrelevant to the lender and the loan contract between them and the joint borrowers, how does all of the above work?Not really. The separation agreement is between the two joint owners.
The mortgage is between them and their lender. The lender is not bound by the separation agreement or by a court order.