So if you had to hazard a guess, how much did BoI give out in mortgages last year?
The assumption I am making is that I believe if a bank had all that money,instead of giving it out to customers for their guaranteed 1% profit,surely they would invest it in something else to return bigger returns than 1%?
Banks make money not only from mortgages but lots of other types of loans with much higher margins. And other non credit products. You seem to be assuming that banks make most or all of their money from mortgages.Hang on - now that is the reply I have gotten from people in the past.
So when I said no one can answer it for me I should have said I no oner can answer it to my satisfaction.
I disagree that a lot of 1% adds up.
Just reading up on mortgage books at the minute in Irish banks and irish residential mortgages accounted for just 10% of profits in BoI last year - and 6% in AIB so I think you're a little out with your 60% estimation
Gonk's explanation is the clearest.
Also remember that any money you have lying around AIB, BOI, Ulster Bank etc earning 0.25% or whatever is lent back out at rates approaching 5% plus on mortgages and 8% plus on personal loans. Now thats an attractive return! In BOI's case, customer deposits account for 42% of their total funding and this is cheap funding for the bank. You are right that banks margins are falling and under pressure due to competiton and rising rates but nothing to worry too much about at the moment. By the way, BOI had a 25% return on equity last year so don't worry about the shareholders.
Can anyone explain how they have made money in that example.
Obviously something goes on in the background.
What is that something?
Can you expand on this a bit? A house buyer gets money into their hand (or at least a cheque into their solicitor's hand) to buy a home. Where does this come from if not from the lender? Obviously the lender will probably borrow it from elsewhere but the borrower ultimately gets the money from the lender.The thing that's going on in the background is that the bank doesn't actually have the €1m it loans you in the first place.
Can you expand on this a bit? A house buyer gets money into their hand (or at least a cheque into their solicitor's hand) to buy a home. Where does this come from if not from the lender? Obviously the lender will probably borrow it from elsewhere but the borrower ultimately gets the money from the lender.
More correct than what?
It is the margin on the ECB cost of funds that would seem to be the most likely source of the profits.
Banks make profits by using other people's money (ECB, customers, whoever) and lending it at fat margins.
Why else would the ECB rate have such a dramatic impact on us punters?