If he has paid everything, and has put his entire redundancy into the mortgage and is now left with little in the bank.. and she has had a high paying job all the time then she might have loads of money in the bank... does this improve the mans situation if she does and admits it?
Surely if she's getting half their house he can get half 'their' savings?
But what if she hasn't saved anything and has spent all her money on shoes?... does he have any entitlement to half the shoes?, or since they're all 'her' shoes would she get to keep the 100,000 worth of shoes (or jewelry etc) and also get half the house?
Or would it be (for example) that the shoes are 100K and the house is 250K so the total is 350K.. which gives 175K each, so she gets the shoes and only 75K from the house?
What if 'shoes' above is changed for 'jewelry'?.. jewelry can be re-sold for money, whereas shoes can't I don't think.