maybe the wrong forum, but here goes anyway.............................
employer has two types of reps on the road. One are the sales people (the chosen people!), the others are debt collectors. Naturally, there are far more sales as most purchasers pay on time. There are 52 sales and 5 debt collection staff.
both had same expenses up to recently. In recent times, the sales lads changed their expenses. They agreed some reduction, but were given additional allowances to make up for it. Those in collection were then forced to take the reductions, but were not given any additional allowances.
Given that for the past 20 years, both had the same, have the collection lads a case to make? Should there have been some negotiation, rather than a unilateral reduction? How does one calculate the loss?
employer has two types of reps on the road. One are the sales people (the chosen people!), the others are debt collectors. Naturally, there are far more sales as most purchasers pay on time. There are 52 sales and 5 debt collection staff.
both had same expenses up to recently. In recent times, the sales lads changed their expenses. They agreed some reduction, but were given additional allowances to make up for it. Those in collection were then forced to take the reductions, but were not given any additional allowances.
Given that for the past 20 years, both had the same, have the collection lads a case to make? Should there have been some negotiation, rather than a unilateral reduction? How does one calculate the loss?