Sophrosyne
Registered User
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- 1,577
The problem in drawing conclusions from the Gini coefficient is that it only relates to income distribution.
Two countries one wealthy and one poor could have the same Gini coefficient, but the basic standard of living in the poor country could be far below that of the wealthy country.
Two families with the same income and equal in all respects might differ substantially in wealth because one family is better at money management.
As other posters have mentioned it is taken at a point in time. Fortunes can go up or down as people progress through life.
But there is also the problem of expected outcomes and observable results. For instance, people with a good education should have greater earning power. What if they don’t? Is this the result of an unknown variable?
I think the most important issue is on the final slide:
“… and –of course –to collect better data
-Know little about intergenerational inequality & mobility
-… or the joint distribution of income, consumption & wealth
-… or the composition & extent of incomes at the very top”.
Two countries one wealthy and one poor could have the same Gini coefficient, but the basic standard of living in the poor country could be far below that of the wealthy country.
Two families with the same income and equal in all respects might differ substantially in wealth because one family is better at money management.
As other posters have mentioned it is taken at a point in time. Fortunes can go up or down as people progress through life.
But there is also the problem of expected outcomes and observable results. For instance, people with a good education should have greater earning power. What if they don’t? Is this the result of an unknown variable?
I think the most important issue is on the final slide:
“… and –of course –to collect better data
-Know little about intergenerational inequality & mobility
-… or the joint distribution of income, consumption & wealth
-… or the composition & extent of incomes at the very top”.
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