So - the mortgage top-up scheduled over roughly the same term as the original personal loan(s) is cheaper. Isn't that what I said? My point was that if the loan to mortgage consolidation top-up is scheduled over the full/remaining term of the mortgage (as many people do and, in the absence of any qualification from Eddie, this punter was being encouraged to do) then this will cost less per month but much more in the long run in interest compared to the original higher rate but shorter term personal/unsecured loan(s). Is that not the case?