I'm keen to know whether my experience with Revenue is typical, and indicative of a change of approach. I do not believe that it is explicitly provided for in tax law, but if I am wrong in that, I would appreciate if someone can explain.
While married we were jointly assessed for income tax. We are now divorced. Perhaps we are unusual in having no maintenance agreement but, for whatever reason, Revenue is now suggesting that we did not meet the standard for treatment as married, not only in the year of our divorce, but also in the year prior. I am honestly bewildered. They keep asking for a "date of separation". We did not have a legal separation. They are not accepting the date on which we ceased living together (nor our divorce date, which was later) Vague and varying references abound in the increasingly tone deaf, upsetting and frankly rude correspondence, but nothing consistent emerges as to what constitutes separation for their purposes. I suppose there may be a clause that "the inspector must be satisfied" but when you get a different person every time, it does feel a bit Kafka-esque.
Obviously, from a family law point of view, we were separated for two years before our divorce. (For those who don't know, you do actually actually have to tell the lawyer the last time you had sexual relations. Bad enough in divorce court, but at least understandable in that context.) Like a lot of people, we had to stay in the house for practical reasons (in separate bedrooms) until shortly before we got our court date. As provided for in family law, we did do lots of things together during this separation time, notably in the co-parenting category but also in terms of shared finances. Legally, we were married. We had enough to be thinking about without reflecting on whether we needed to be rejigging our personal taxation arrangements. But now Revenue imply we should have, and they reject everything I send explaining that we were still married.
All this leaves me to wonder: Does the taxman actually come into the bedroom now?
And, if we don't count as married for tax purposes because our sexual relationship was over, would that standard also apply to couples who did not go on to divorce? How would the Tax Inspector satisfy himself that the criterion was met? (Obviously I'm joking. But its really not funny, is it?)
I know that this probably has no real status in the event of dispute, but citizens' information does at least indicate that there is no general assumption that you cant be separated for family law purposes and married for tax purposes. I am not allowed to post a link but remove some spaces and have a look at https:// www. citizensinformation .ie/en/money-and-tax/tax/income-tax-credits-and-reliefs/separation-divorce-and-tax-reliefs/ to see what I mean.
Financially I suppose it may not make much difference but I have found the whole challenge by Revenue to be really odd, to say nothing of shockingly intrusive and emotionally triggering. If anyone can help me to understand this, and whether it is worth challenging/engaging a professional to challenge, I would appreciate your input. Obviously, if this happened to you I'd be particularly interested to know where it ended up.
(Thank you, and sorry if this has been asked before. I did do an electronic search, but I did not see anything about this particular aspect of divorce.)
While married we were jointly assessed for income tax. We are now divorced. Perhaps we are unusual in having no maintenance agreement but, for whatever reason, Revenue is now suggesting that we did not meet the standard for treatment as married, not only in the year of our divorce, but also in the year prior. I am honestly bewildered. They keep asking for a "date of separation". We did not have a legal separation. They are not accepting the date on which we ceased living together (nor our divorce date, which was later) Vague and varying references abound in the increasingly tone deaf, upsetting and frankly rude correspondence, but nothing consistent emerges as to what constitutes separation for their purposes. I suppose there may be a clause that "the inspector must be satisfied" but when you get a different person every time, it does feel a bit Kafka-esque.
Obviously, from a family law point of view, we were separated for two years before our divorce. (For those who don't know, you do actually actually have to tell the lawyer the last time you had sexual relations. Bad enough in divorce court, but at least understandable in that context.) Like a lot of people, we had to stay in the house for practical reasons (in separate bedrooms) until shortly before we got our court date. As provided for in family law, we did do lots of things together during this separation time, notably in the co-parenting category but also in terms of shared finances. Legally, we were married. We had enough to be thinking about without reflecting on whether we needed to be rejigging our personal taxation arrangements. But now Revenue imply we should have, and they reject everything I send explaining that we were still married.
All this leaves me to wonder: Does the taxman actually come into the bedroom now?
And, if we don't count as married for tax purposes because our sexual relationship was over, would that standard also apply to couples who did not go on to divorce? How would the Tax Inspector satisfy himself that the criterion was met? (Obviously I'm joking. But its really not funny, is it?)
I know that this probably has no real status in the event of dispute, but citizens' information does at least indicate that there is no general assumption that you cant be separated for family law purposes and married for tax purposes. I am not allowed to post a link but remove some spaces and have a look at https:// www. citizensinformation .ie/en/money-and-tax/tax/income-tax-credits-and-reliefs/separation-divorce-and-tax-reliefs/ to see what I mean.
Financially I suppose it may not make much difference but I have found the whole challenge by Revenue to be really odd, to say nothing of shockingly intrusive and emotionally triggering. If anyone can help me to understand this, and whether it is worth challenging/engaging a professional to challenge, I would appreciate your input. Obviously, if this happened to you I'd be particularly interested to know where it ended up.
(Thank you, and sorry if this has been asked before. I did do an electronic search, but I did not see anything about this particular aspect of divorce.)