Z
zag
Guest
Can someone clarify the story in regard to the way that pensions (defined contribution in my case) work please ?
I feel a bit of aggro coming on in work in relation to the company pension scheme and need to get my head straight in advance of wading in.
I base my understanding of the operation on a number of assumptions - not all of which may be correct, so I am setting them out (starting at first principles) here.
*I work for a company
*That company provides/facilitates a defined contribution pension scheme for it's employees. For the first 5% contributed by an employee the employer will match the contribution.
*The scheme is created/established with trustees being appointed to 'manage it' or be the interface between employees/pensioners
*The trustees go off and appoint a broker to provide advice and a set of proposals from the market that is made up of pension providers
*The trustees ultimately decide which pension provider (called Hibernation for example) to go with, based on their own knowledge but weighed significantly by the advise and glossy brochures provided by the broker
*The pension provider has a range of their own funds (Hibernation cash fund, Hibernation equity fund, Hibernation middle-of-the-road fund) and also resells a range of other funds from other providers (Edinburgh cash fund, Edinburgh equity fund, etc . . .)
*Employees are given a choice of funds to invest in - but these funds must be pre-selected by the trustees, so not all funds sold/provided by Hibernation may be part of an employees scheme.
At the moment it looks like the following direct communications are frowned upon :
1) employee to broker
2) employee to pension provider
3) trustee to pension provider
The only authorised communications are from employee to trustee to broker to provider.
I presume (and am awaiting clarification from the trustees via the broker, etc . . .) that there is commission being charged in many places
1) when the employer pays over money to the broker monthly there is a management fee
2) when the broker hands over money to the provider there is a transaction fee and possibly a management fee
3) when the provider hands over money to buy funds from Edinburgh (i.e. not from within their own funds) there is a transaction fee
I would appreciate if anyone could highlight any errors or misunderstandings I have made in the above. I appreciate that I am asking about a specific instance (which nobody out there knows the details of), but I am wondering if the items above also apply to the generality of defined contribution schemes.
Cheers,
z
I feel a bit of aggro coming on in work in relation to the company pension scheme and need to get my head straight in advance of wading in.
I base my understanding of the operation on a number of assumptions - not all of which may be correct, so I am setting them out (starting at first principles) here.
*I work for a company
*That company provides/facilitates a defined contribution pension scheme for it's employees. For the first 5% contributed by an employee the employer will match the contribution.
*The scheme is created/established with trustees being appointed to 'manage it' or be the interface between employees/pensioners
*The trustees go off and appoint a broker to provide advice and a set of proposals from the market that is made up of pension providers
*The trustees ultimately decide which pension provider (called Hibernation for example) to go with, based on their own knowledge but weighed significantly by the advise and glossy brochures provided by the broker
*The pension provider has a range of their own funds (Hibernation cash fund, Hibernation equity fund, Hibernation middle-of-the-road fund) and also resells a range of other funds from other providers (Edinburgh cash fund, Edinburgh equity fund, etc . . .)
*Employees are given a choice of funds to invest in - but these funds must be pre-selected by the trustees, so not all funds sold/provided by Hibernation may be part of an employees scheme.
At the moment it looks like the following direct communications are frowned upon :
1) employee to broker
2) employee to pension provider
3) trustee to pension provider
The only authorised communications are from employee to trustee to broker to provider.
I presume (and am awaiting clarification from the trustees via the broker, etc . . .) that there is commission being charged in many places
1) when the employer pays over money to the broker monthly there is a management fee
2) when the broker hands over money to the provider there is a transaction fee and possibly a management fee
3) when the provider hands over money to buy funds from Edinburgh (i.e. not from within their own funds) there is a transaction fee
I would appreciate if anyone could highlight any errors or misunderstandings I have made in the above. I appreciate that I am asking about a specific instance (which nobody out there knows the details of), but I am wondering if the items above also apply to the generality of defined contribution schemes.
Cheers,
z