Brendan Burgess
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The discussion of bridging in another thread made me think of this.
Let's say I have a house worth €300k with a €100k mortgage.
I sell it and have €200k cash.
I am approved for a loan of €300k so I buy a house for €500k.
Why does the lender not lend me the €500k on an ordinary mortgage on condition that I sell my own house?
They would have €600k of mortgages on properties worth €800k - so 75% Loan to Value.
The Central Bank rules would not allow it, but park them for the moment, as they could be adjusted to cater for it.
Of course, people would exploit such loans by saying that they plan to sell their own home, and then they just keep it as an investment and so the bank faces a longer term risk.
And there is a risk of house prices falling and the client is unable to sell the original house and ends up with a bigger mortgage.
Are there any ways for the bank to mitigate the risk involved?
The house would have to be actively on the market.
Maybe the maximum Loan to Value would be 50% - or 75% if contracts have been exchanged.
Could some sort of higher interest rate be charged during the "bridging" period? So if the rate on the new mortgage was 1% per month, it would be a huge incentive for the client to sell the initial property as quickly as possible.
Let's say I have a house worth €300k with a €100k mortgage.
I sell it and have €200k cash.
I am approved for a loan of €300k so I buy a house for €500k.
Why does the lender not lend me the €500k on an ordinary mortgage on condition that I sell my own house?
They would have €600k of mortgages on properties worth €800k - so 75% Loan to Value.
The Central Bank rules would not allow it, but park them for the moment, as they could be adjusted to cater for it.
Of course, people would exploit such loans by saying that they plan to sell their own home, and then they just keep it as an investment and so the bank faces a longer term risk.
And there is a risk of house prices falling and the client is unable to sell the original house and ends up with a bigger mortgage.
Are there any ways for the bank to mitigate the risk involved?
The house would have to be actively on the market.
Maybe the maximum Loan to Value would be 50% - or 75% if contracts have been exchanged.
Could some sort of higher interest rate be charged during the "bridging" period? So if the rate on the new mortgage was 1% per month, it would be a huge incentive for the client to sell the initial property as quickly as possible.