Continued to be paid salary after I left my job.

If the employer has incompetently paid the guy for two months, is there not a danger that they will mess it up?

I don't think that they are fiddling the system in any dishonest way.

It's as if they employer sent a payment to someone which they should not have done.

T McGibney said:

The solution here is simple.

• The OP repays the net sums as soon as they can.
• As they receive each repayment instalment, and until the entire overpayment is cleared the ex-employer records this under the OP's PPSN on each successive payroll run.
• The cumulative Revenue deduction record will correct itself each time.
• The end.

Any attempt by the OP in the meantime to force their ex-employer to essentially fiddle their payroll is likely only to cause unproductive aggro and confusion.

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Only a fool would follow this advice, i.e. repay the money and then hope the same people who botched the payments get it right this time. When matters have been corrected and there’s no prospect of the OP being out of pocket, he or she should repay the final amount.

Gordon Gekko said:

Only a fool would follow this advice, i.e. repay the money and then hope the same people who botched the payments get it right this time. When matters have been corrected and there’s no prospect of the OP being out of pocket, he or she should repay the final amount.

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???

It's the employer's job to properly run their workplace payroll. It's the ex-employee's job to repay the net sums they've been overpaid. They should indeed demand the issue of a payslip on repayment of each instalment.

I can't fathom what you see wrong with this statement of the obvious.

Can the employer put through the reversal of payment in the Revenue system, and then the balancing part of journal to be posted is an asset on their BS/payroll clearing account? Then the employee can repay the net amount when they can see their record updated. Can happen same day.