Only a fool would follow this advice, i.e. repay the money and then hope the same people who botched the payments get it right this time. When matters have been corrected and there’s no prospect of the OP being out of pocket, he or she should repay the final amount.The solution here is simple.
Any attempt by the OP in the meantime to force their ex-employer to essentially fiddle their payroll is likely only to cause unproductive aggro and confusion.
- The OP repays the net sums as soon as they can.
- As they receive each repayment instalment, and until the entire overpayment is cleared the ex-employer records this under the OP's PPSN on each successive payroll run.
- The cumulative Revenue deduction record will correct itself each time.
- The end.
???Only a fool would follow this advice, i.e. repay the money and then hope the same people who botched the payments get it right this time. When matters have been corrected and there’s no prospect of the OP being out of pocket, he or she should repay the final amount.
I’ll try to spell it out for you so…???
It's the employer's job to properly run their workplace payroll. It's the ex-employee's job to repay the net sums they've been overpaid. They should indeed demand the issue of a payslip on repayment of each instalment.
I can't fathom what you see wrong with this statement of the obvious.
I would absolutely not approach Revenue, they are unlikely to just accept your word that you shouldn't have been paid the money. Even if they do, that is irrelevant from a tax point of view. You are taxable on what you were paid, not what you should have been paid.I would seperately contact Revenue and find out how you go about having any tax credits that there applied to these two "salary" payments, reversed.
I don't think that at all contradicts my earlier comment. I did say:I’ll try to spell it out for you so…
If the employee repays the money and the former employer compounds the error by not treating it properly on the way back, the former employee’s next paycheck could be down, leaving him or her temporarily out of pocket.
I wouldn’t leave myself exposed with eejits who’ve already shown themselves to be incompetent.
They should indeed demand the issue of a payslip on repayment of each instalment.
And my point is that, given the history, it would be foolhardy to say “here’s the money, now please can I have confirmation that you’ve corrected the position”.I don't think that at all contradicts my earlier comment. I did say:
Agreed.And my point is that, given the history, it would be foolhardy to say “here’s the money, now please can I have confirmation that you’ve corrected the position”.
“Show me the corrected position and I’ll give you the money lads.”
This can easily be done. For heaven’s sake, most people get payslips before they get the money.
A lot of dodgy advice here. Not aam's finest hour, in my opinion.
Correct. If the OP repays the money first, he or she is completely at the mercy of people who’ve already demonstrated incompetence, and who have less motivation to prioritise helping him or her, given they’ll be dealing with a former employee. The OP has leverage at the moment to ensure the matter is resolved to his or her satisfaction. It would be foolish to give that up.Agreed.
If the OP repays first and its not corrected paperwork-wise he may suffer and has no simple recourse.
If there were pension deductions it will complicate things as employer can't reclaim these if already paid over to provider.
There have been too many to mention, and I hope even finer lie in the future. (Mortgages sold to vulture funds ? https://www.askaboutmoney.com/threa...mbudsman-about-the-vulture-fund-rates.232134/)And what was our finest hour?
I thought that these days most or all references were simply confirmation that the individual worked for the company from one date to another with little or no additional details?
Never heard of Gross being asked for,
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