I haven't a clue on this one, but there are some questions arising.
What's the history of ownership?
Just because your family once lived there and paid bills there, why should you have a claim to press regarding the ownership?
Was not the house legally sold to the person who recently passed away?
Was it sold directly to them by your family, or were there intervening titleholders?
In the case of a legal sale, or legal repossession by a bank and sell-on, it would seem as though you have no claim to ownership above anyone else.
More importantly, if the recent owner mortgaged the house, and the mortgage was still outstanding, the deeds will be with the mortgaging firm, a bank possibly.
Of course the mortgage may be paid, but the deeds may still rest in a bank vault and who is left to dispute them.
Similarly, the mortgage may be paid, but the deeds are with the recent owner's solicitor.
In fact you may just have uncovered how a bank or a solicitor may acquire certain kinds of property...
Seriously, though, most people make a will.
Unless the recent owner left it to you in the will, you have no claim, if my assumptions above are correct.
Dunno what happens if the recent owner died intestate and held the deeds.
Its possible that after a certain time of no relatives or other legal successors in title coming forward the property will revert to the state.