Thanks, but I still don't get it.Ordinarily yes, but maybe not entirely in this case as the payment made by ex to be removed from mortgage might evidence a value for the property transfer if no other exists.
The original poster already said that they paid €55k when the property was worth (I presume slightly?) under €300k to buy the ex out (of the mortgage and/or property itself).
Isn't that the relevant info?
Or am I missing something?