CGT allowable losses

L

LL????

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I purchased an investment property in 2008 for €153k and subsequently sold it in 2020 for €105k.

The acquisition costs were €6k and the sales costs came to €5k.

I have recently sold another property which I made a gain on and want to clarify what loss value I can use to offset against this gain in order to determine my CGT liability which needs to be paid before Dec 15th. Is the allowable loss €48k (€105k - €153k) or €59k (€48k + €6k + €5k) if the acquisition and sales costs can also be factored in.
 
It doesn't take long to get the information directly from the Revenue web site https://www.revenue.ie/en/gains-gifts-and-inheritance/transfering-an-asset/how-to-calculate-cgt.aspx

In particular
What are ‘allowable expenses’?
These are costs that you can deduct from the sale price to work out your chargeable gain. They can be:

any money spent by you which adds value to the asset (known as ‘enhancement expenditure’)
costs (for example, fees paid by you to a solicitor or auctioneer) when you acquired and disposed of the asset.
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jpd said:
It doesn't take long to get the information directly from the Revenue web site https://www.revenue.ie/en/gains-gifts-and-inheritance/transfering-an-asset/how-to-calculate-cgt.aspx

In particular
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Thanks for this, but it doesn't really answer my query.

The following is an extract from an Irish Times response to a similar query "As you cannot use allowances to increase a loss, her selling expenses and time for which it was her main home are not relevant" which would suggest in my initial query that the allowable loss is capped at €48k, which is what I'm seeking confirmation of.
 
LL???? said:
"As you cannot use allowances to increase a loss, her selling expenses and time for which it was her main home are not relevant"
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Not correct in this context, whatever about the original.

Seriously consider getting professional assistance where material sums are at issue and you're unsure what you're doing. Out-of-context information may mislead and cause either a tax underpayment or overpayment.
 
I think the Irish Times article is talking about something different. You cannot use capital allowances to generate or increase a loss for income tax purposes. But this has no relevance to the calculation of chargeable gains for CGT purposes.
 
We jointly hold paper shares in Company A bought say 10 years ago. I also have digital shares shares in my own name in Company A bought 2 years ago using an online broker. I have a CGT loss that can eliminate tax on the shares bought 10 years ago. If I sell the 2 year old shares the broker has, is the “first in first out” rule applicable ?
 
TomEdison said:
I think the Irish Times article is talking about something different. You cannot use capital allowances to generate or increase a loss for income tax purposes. But this has no relevance to the calculation of chargeable gains for CGT purposes.
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If you make a loss for cgt purposes that loss is restricted by the amount of capital allowances previously claimed on the asset being sold
 
Park00 said:
We jointly hold paper shares in Company A bought say 10 years ago. I also have digital shares shares in my own name in Company A bought 2 years ago using an online broker. I have a CGT loss that can eliminate tax on the shares bought 10 years ago. If I sell the 2 year old shares the broker has, is the “first in first out” rule applicable ?
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You should have created a new topic. Your question has nothing to do with the original topic in this thread
 
CGT losses are allowed against any CGT gain - why do you think your loss is not allowed?
 
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