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The scenario that I'm talking about is a post-95 public servant who retires at 65 with full pension - 1/2 salary less the OACP. But (as far as I know) the OAPC is now not paid until age 68.
Is this public servant going to be down the value of the OAPC for three years, or, for the three years where the OAPC = 0, is the main pension 1/2 salary less zero, i.e. 1/2 salary?
Is this public servant going to be down the value of the OAPC for three years, or, for the three years where the OAPC = 0, is the main pension 1/2 salary less zero, i.e. 1/2 salary?