Duke of Marmalade
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Yep
The article states that the average growth of the S&P was 1.5% higher than the median growth.
yep and that's why there is such a trend toward passive investment. An interesting thought experiment is if everybody is a passive investor, who sets the price?If an investor correctly buys the market, ie buys each share in proportion to its market cap, then he or she receives the average return, not the median.
It's not mad if your objective is to beat the market return.The more that I read up on this, the more my own view strengthens; basically, it’s mad to own less than (say) 30 shares.
Enough for what exactly? Enough to achieve something akin to the market return? Enough to materially reduce the idiosyncratic risk of individual stocks? Enough to diversify accross sectors, geography, company size or something else.The main point for investors is whether 10 shares is enough.
Not really Colm. The sloth fund was initially constituted with 30 (not 10) US "mega-caps". If you established a portfolio with 30 of the largest cap companies from the S&P500 then, yes, the correlation with the S&P500 as a whole would be very high.The experience of the "sloth fund", which I mentioned in posting #15 on this thread, supports this contention.
10 stocks randomly selected from the ~10,000 publicly traded companies across the globe is not going to be anywhere near as closely correlated.
An interesting thought experiment is if everybody is a passive investor, who sets the price?
Colm, that seems a very strong conjecture. I know picking randomly from FTSE 100 is not directly comparable with your algorithm but it was the most available to a Google search. I have uploaded my findings (I love uploading). This is the current 12 month performance of the individual components. I was really startled by the variance between companies. No less than a staggering 29% standard deviation In words, using say 2 standard deviations as a measure of outlier a single stock picked at random might be 60% off the average. For 10 stocks chosen at random the standard deviation would be 9% with the outlier being a possible c.20% off the benchmark.Whilst I don't have any statistics to prove the conjecture, I am confident that a portfolio of 10 shares selected randomly from the top 100 shares in the world index, with weightings broadly consistent with their respective market valuations, would deliver the same return as the index with a margin of error of 1% in any 12 month period.
Nothing as fancy as market weightings, and I think am using the FTSE price only index, but it gives a flavour of the concepts involved. I upload the spreadsheet with 5 year figures included. Yes the standard deviation falls from 29.2% to 11.8% but we would expect that order of reduction fro purely statistical considerations (divide by SQRT(5)).Duke, I guessed that you would be on the job!! Yes, I'm surprised too by the differences. Did you allow for weightings relative to their respective market capitalisations? It would also be interesting to know if my related conjecture that the variation reduces over time holds true. Can you look at those same stocks over (say) a three year period? For completeness, we should look at total returns, not just price.
And that's just large caps - imagine the variation in returns across the full FTSE All-Share Index.I'm almost in a state of shock over the variation between stocks in the FTSE 100.