Brendan Burgess
Founder
- Messages
- 54,743
Yes. And that was all because AIB didn't notify you of something that the World and his mother already knew.
Brendan
Brendan
The significant change in ECB monetary policy that was announced on the 8th October 2008 when the ECB announced a change from the ECB minimum bid rate to the fixed tenders full allotment rate signaled to the Eurozone Banks and others that the ECB was going to prop up the inter bank money market and become the lender of first choice as oppose to being the lender of last resort. ......
The fact that AIB failed to inform me of this significant change in the interest rate applicable to my loans as contractually obligated to, was unreasonable and unfair as well as being opaque, and contributed significantly to my loss of opportunity (ie to liquidate some or all of my portfolio). This is my loss.
Hi Skrooge,You summarise the change well.
However, I don't see that AIB had a responsibility to advise you on the spectrum of potential outcomes and financial consequences associated with an ECB policy change. That policy and the rationale was publish in the ECB website. AIB did not hide it from you.
You state there was a significant change in interest rate applicable on your loan. This is factually not the case.
Did they fail to honour the exact wording of the contract -yes*. Did they break the spirit of it - no.
*I'm still not sure there isn't an advert in a paper somewhere
Also, if a complaint is made to the FSPO about this matter, it has a unique hybrid jurisdiction within the Irish State so it can also find against the Bank regarding the Bank’s conduct regarding this issue on matters such as non transparency, improper conduct etc..
are already before the FSPO and have been accepted as valid complaints, they have been assigned complaint numbers etc.
Brendan,So you had a tracker with AIB.
The reference rate changed.
You were not aware of it.
They didn't notify you of it.
And you say, that you would have had the foresight to...
1) Gone to a professional advisor
2) She would have told you that this meant that property prices were going to crash
3) You would have believed her
4) You would have sold all your property at the inflated prices
And, of course, you can offer in evidence the advice given by lots of financial advisors at the time to their clients that, despite having a cheap tracker, they should sell their property?
And people wonder why the Financial Services Ombudsman rejects 90% of complaints!
Brendan
There is a rule when claiming damages for breach of contract that (1) the offended party has suffered loss and (2) that loss has to have been substantially caused by the breach. This is what is known as causation.This is a fact or am I missing something?
Hi Jayom75,There is a rule when claiming damages for breach of contract that (1) the offended party has suffered loss and (2) that loss has to have been substantially caused by the breach. This is what is known as causation.
That the bank failed to notify the customer as per its contractual requirement to do so may well have constituted a breach of contract, but did that sole breach cause the damages alleged by the complainant? I doubt it.
Just because a party breaches a contract does not automatically equate to substantial damages being claimable by the offended party.
For something that happened in 2008?However, I am not going to court, I am taking the FSPO route
,For something that happened in 2008?
Are you not out of time?