P
Phelo70
Guest
Hi all. My fiancée & I have two properties. We both bought in 2001 & we both have approximately €140,000 remaining on our mortgages. I have my property let since 2004, so I would be liable for capital gains tax (CGT). I have a number of questions that perhaps someone could advise me on:
1. If I sell my property, which of the following would be used to calculate the CGT:
a. Would it take into account the fact that It was my principle private residence for 3 years, i.e. would it be based on the estimated price in 2004 when I first rented the property to 2007? The only reason I’m asking this is that I haven’t read anything to the contrary or to confirm it. Also, I was exempt from stamp duty (SD) in 2001 because of the SD ceiling at the time, so I expect not to be liable for clawback.
b. Or would it be 20% on the capital gain from the purchase price to disposal price (minus the acquisition & disposal costs and the first €1270), i.e. from 2001 to 2007?
4. Would it make sense to use the capital released to clear my partner’s mortgage and leave us with no debt and 1 property to the good
?
5. Using basic figures, I calculate that the overall saving from clearing both debts now would be in the region of €80,000 to €90,000. Taking that CGT will be calculated based on question 3 above, I’d be liable for €40,000 to the Taxman, which in the grand scheme of things can be looked upon as an indication as to how much money the property has made, but due to the current property market slowdown, will not make the same gains in the next 5 years.
6. Does anyone have any idea as how the stamp-duty will be altered in the future in investment terms
?
Any advise would be greatly appreciated, and while I know that there are a lot of very knowledgeable people on this website, if your answers could be backed up with references, I’d be even more impressed
.
Cheers
1. If I sell my property, which of the following would be used to calculate the CGT:
a. Would it take into account the fact that It was my principle private residence for 3 years, i.e. would it be based on the estimated price in 2004 when I first rented the property to 2007? The only reason I’m asking this is that I haven’t read anything to the contrary or to confirm it. Also, I was exempt from stamp duty (SD) in 2001 because of the SD ceiling at the time, so I expect not to be liable for clawback.
b. Or would it be 20% on the capital gain from the purchase price to disposal price (minus the acquisition & disposal costs and the first €1270), i.e. from 2001 to 2007?
4. Would it make sense to use the capital released to clear my partner’s mortgage and leave us with no debt and 1 property to the good
5. Using basic figures, I calculate that the overall saving from clearing both debts now would be in the region of €80,000 to €90,000. Taking that CGT will be calculated based on question 3 above, I’d be liable for €40,000 to the Taxman, which in the grand scheme of things can be looked upon as an indication as to how much money the property has made, but due to the current property market slowdown, will not make the same gains in the next 5 years.
6. Does anyone have any idea as how the stamp-duty will be altered in the future in investment terms
Any advise would be greatly appreciated, and while I know that there are a lot of very knowledgeable people on this website, if your answers could be backed up with references, I’d be even more impressed
Cheers