G
Gurm
Guest
Hi
Would appreciate any assistance on current issue. Have been separated (not legally) for over 3 years. Ex husband agreed 2.5 years ago to pay weekly child maintenance, this was not by court order, it was agreed between solicitors.
He hasn't paid any maintenance for over 18 months. In the last few days I have received a letter from his solicitor stating that from next weekend he "suggests" full day access on Saturdays alternating with Friday pick up the following week and returning the child on Saturday night. The child has never stayed overnight and is not keen on this idea. The solicitor's letter also addressed the issue of non payment of maintenance and stated this was down to much reduced income (he was self employed). He has now taken up paid employment and apparently is willing "to address this issue"
The tone of his solicitor's letters is always dictatorial, there is rarely any evidence of what is best for the child, it's always - my client this, my client that! I need to reply to the letter and advise I have no issue with the full day access but have two questions:
1) Would it be ok for me to mention that the child is not keen on the overnight stays or could this be seen as me trying to be difficult? (There was a situation two years ago where the child didn't want to leave all the Santy presents etc to go to the grandmother's traditional christmas morning gathering and was subsequently carried, half dressed from the house crying.
2) As there is no court order for maintenance in place, can I mention the arrears of 18 months worth of payments?
Admittedly, I am angered by the tone of the letter and the blase attitude that now that he is an employee as apposed to being self employed, he is willing to "address the non payment" and feels that in the same breath he can dictate access arrangements? It is quite obvious that he has had no shortage of money to spend on himself over recent months but that's irrelevant.
Thanks
Would appreciate any assistance on current issue. Have been separated (not legally) for over 3 years. Ex husband agreed 2.5 years ago to pay weekly child maintenance, this was not by court order, it was agreed between solicitors.
He hasn't paid any maintenance for over 18 months. In the last few days I have received a letter from his solicitor stating that from next weekend he "suggests" full day access on Saturdays alternating with Friday pick up the following week and returning the child on Saturday night. The child has never stayed overnight and is not keen on this idea. The solicitor's letter also addressed the issue of non payment of maintenance and stated this was down to much reduced income (he was self employed). He has now taken up paid employment and apparently is willing "to address this issue"
The tone of his solicitor's letters is always dictatorial, there is rarely any evidence of what is best for the child, it's always - my client this, my client that! I need to reply to the letter and advise I have no issue with the full day access but have two questions:
1) Would it be ok for me to mention that the child is not keen on the overnight stays or could this be seen as me trying to be difficult? (There was a situation two years ago where the child didn't want to leave all the Santy presents etc to go to the grandmother's traditional christmas morning gathering and was subsequently carried, half dressed from the house crying.
2) As there is no court order for maintenance in place, can I mention the arrears of 18 months worth of payments?
Admittedly, I am angered by the tone of the letter and the blase attitude that now that he is an employee as apposed to being self employed, he is willing to "address the non payment" and feels that in the same breath he can dictate access arrangements? It is quite obvious that he has had no shortage of money to spend on himself over recent months but that's irrelevant.
Thanks