I am currently going through the process of divorce and contemplating transferring title of the house to my ex so that I can eventually buy a place of my own.
The query I have, could I be classed as a first time buyer as after a bit of googling I would meet all the criteria below.
"The legislation further provides that a spouse to a marriage the subject of a decree of judicial separation, a deed of separation, a deed of divorce or a decree of nullity in the case of the first acquisition of a house by the spouse following the separation or divorce will be considered a First-Time Buyer provided that the spouse had in relation to the former marital home;"
I recieved a first time buyers grant when we joint purchased our original house but I am just confused if this is something I could avail of?
My bank has said they never heard of a seperated/ divorced person becoming a first time buyer after a transfer of title.
The query I have, could I be classed as a first time buyer as after a bit of googling I would meet all the criteria below.
"The legislation further provides that a spouse to a marriage the subject of a decree of judicial separation, a deed of separation, a deed of divorce or a decree of nullity in the case of the first acquisition of a house by the spouse following the separation or divorce will be considered a First-Time Buyer provided that the spouse had in relation to the former marital home;"
- Left that home;
- Not retained an interest in that home;
- And whose separated former spouse continues to occupy that home, which home was occupied by both spouses prior to the separation or dissolution of the marriage.
I recieved a first time buyers grant when we joint purchased our original house but I am just confused if this is something I could avail of?
My bank has said they never heard of a seperated/ divorced person becoming a first time buyer after a transfer of title.