Who legally owns the house contents

C

chandler999

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My mother's aunt owned a house which was furnished. She died over 30 years ago and the house was sold to close friends of hers. The contents of the house were never purchased, but instead, were left for the new owners use.The house was used as a holiday home as these people are from the U.S.A. My mother and father were the caretakers. Now these people have sold the house. We were allowed to remove some items by the old owners. They sold the house unfurnished, but verbally told the new owners they could have what they wanted. We removed other items of senimental value before the new owners got the keys, now they (new owners) are demanding that we return these items. Where do we stand???
 
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Sounds like the new owners have a verbal contract that the contents are theirs. However you also have a verbal contract to "remove some items."

Whether these verbal contracts are enforceable is another story.
 
We were allowed to remove some items by the old owners. They sold the house unfurnished, but verbally told the new owners they could have what they wanted. We removed other items of senimental value before the new owners got the keys, now they (new owners) are demanding that we return these items. Where do we stand???

This is not a legal view. I think this matter might have to go to Court for a ruling on rights and wrongs, based on the new owners petitioning for the return of the items. There appear to be 2 contradictory verbal agreements and it's completely unclear what happened exactly. There seems to be no doubt that the new owners had an agreement about the contents but was your agreement made first and could you prove that if challenged? Did you remove items after the new owners had seen them and decided what they wanted to take? Did they make a written list? When you removed the items did you know about the new owners' agreement and if so could you have raised the matter with the old owner at that time? How did the new owners know that items were missing and that you had them?

|If as it might appear, the old owner made a mistake in not advising the new owners about your situation why is he not being consulted?

**[I'm sorry but in answering the above I overlooked the fact that the furniture was not sold or given to the friends who bought the house from the Aunt (the 'old owners'). As the Aunt is dead then the contents would have been transferred to her Beneficiaries in accordance with her Will. They (because there could be more than one) would become the legal owners and they alone can determine what is to happen to it. If your parents alone were the only ones inheriting the contents then they might be seen to have the right to decide on its disposition, and if so, the old owner cannot 'allow' anyone to remove items. Legal advise is recommended I think.]
 
The contract between the purchasers and vendors would (or should) have had a clause regarding contents if there were contents to pass as part of the sale. There would (or Should) have been a list of contents. If the contract is silent then the presumption is that the house passes with vacant possession, with all of the vendors belongings removed. The purchasers should be, through their solicitor, seeking clarification. You were not a party to this agreement and so the dispute, if any, should initially be between the Vendors and Purchasers. If the purchaser is contacting you directly you need to clarify the contractual situation with the Vendor with whom you had an agreement. What do they have to say? What are the value of these contents?
 
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