I would appreciate any advice on my current situation.
I recently applied for sole trader status as I am now working as an IT contractor.
As part of this the revenue seem to have gone back through my tax history over the past several years and I recieved a letter from them demanding nearly €3,000 in tax underpaid for the tax year 2004.
At that time I was a PAYE employee and changed jobs around the begining of June 2004 to another company where I was once again a PAYE employee.
From what I can make out from the limited details on the form I was sent, my first employer appears to have paid no tax at all on what I was paid for during the first 6 months of 2004. Of course to top it all my bank records of the time aren't available at the moment as I never recieved them back from my mortgage provider when I applied for a mortgage in that time period. We never recieved any payslips with regard to our wages so no records there either. As far as I can remember I was paid the after tax figure as I would have been normally (I worked ther for 1.5 years).
To me this implies that the company in question never paid my tax as they were due to do so under the PAYE system and therefore it is them who are liable for any underpayment of my tax at the time.
Is this the case? According to the small print on the revenue letter I have 30 days to appeal this demand for payment. I'd appreciate hearing what the best course is to take in this case. Thanks.
I recently applied for sole trader status as I am now working as an IT contractor.
As part of this the revenue seem to have gone back through my tax history over the past several years and I recieved a letter from them demanding nearly €3,000 in tax underpaid for the tax year 2004.
At that time I was a PAYE employee and changed jobs around the begining of June 2004 to another company where I was once again a PAYE employee.
From what I can make out from the limited details on the form I was sent, my first employer appears to have paid no tax at all on what I was paid for during the first 6 months of 2004. Of course to top it all my bank records of the time aren't available at the moment as I never recieved them back from my mortgage provider when I applied for a mortgage in that time period. We never recieved any payslips with regard to our wages so no records there either. As far as I can remember I was paid the after tax figure as I would have been normally (I worked ther for 1.5 years).
To me this implies that the company in question never paid my tax as they were due to do so under the PAYE system and therefore it is them who are liable for any underpayment of my tax at the time.
Is this the case? According to the small print on the revenue letter I have 30 days to appeal this demand for payment. I'd appreciate hearing what the best course is to take in this case. Thanks.