Hi,
Using paylesstax for 1st time. I've come across the following which is confusing me on how to answer correctly.
I bought rental property in 2003 and have since married (2007).
The Paylesstax asks what percentage of property is mine and spouse's respectively.
At 1st glance, I would have said 100% mine but given that we're married and if it all went belly up it'd prob go 50/50. My wife does her fair share with the property so its inaccurate to state its 100% mine and nothing to do with her. I'm wondering if there is strict criteria on how to gauge this or is it vague?
Any opinions/ideas on how I should approach this?
Using paylesstax for 1st time. I've come across the following which is confusing me on how to answer correctly.
I bought rental property in 2003 and have since married (2007).
The Paylesstax asks what percentage of property is mine and spouse's respectively.
At 1st glance, I would have said 100% mine but given that we're married and if it all went belly up it'd prob go 50/50. My wife does her fair share with the property so its inaccurate to state its 100% mine and nothing to do with her. I'm wondering if there is strict criteria on how to gauge this or is it vague?
Any opinions/ideas on how I should approach this?