Am I correct in saying that if you purchased a property in, say 2012, you get both MIR and also the CGT exemption, subject to the terms of both of those schemes?
If the above is correct then is this not grossly unfair on someone who may have purchased a property in, say 2015, and qualifies for neither of these very generous schemes?
As well as this the help to buy scheme i think only applies to someone buying a new house since 2017? So again it seems that if you bought in 2015, for example, you,re been punished for not buying in the years either side of it.
If the above is correct then is this not grossly unfair on someone who may have purchased a property in, say 2015, and qualifies for neither of these very generous schemes?
As well as this the help to buy scheme i think only applies to someone buying a new house since 2017? So again it seems that if you bought in 2015, for example, you,re been punished for not buying in the years either side of it.