Hedge Funds, basic facts ?

Was that a typo ? Did you mean before 00 ?

No, I definitely meant from 00 to 02. In 00, the S&P 500 returned negative 10% whereas RedJoker's friend returned nearly 30%. That's phenomenal outperformance but is not matched in any other years. Hence my wondering if the fund was very bearishly inclined.
 
Interesting that your friend seems to have only performed well from 00-02. Perhaps his fund leans on the bearish side too much? Nevertheless, this is a pretty strange statement to come out with. The definition of an "underleveraged" fund is of course, very subjective, but surely any leverage whatsover increases your risk? Even a market neutral, low volatility seeking strategy does not imply the absence of risk.

Subprime CDOs and corporate junk bonds may have low volatility (many subprime CDOs are not even marked-to-market) but that does not imply they have less risk than the general market.

Yes; but it's not really surprising since long/short hedge funds are designed to protect you from capital loss during a bear market. In 2000, for example, they had little to no net exposure.

Here is the S&P from 2000 on

00 -9.1
01 -11.9
02 -22.1

During that three year period his fund was +42% while the S&P was down 38%.

Having taken the risk of on average around 6% volatility vs like 17% for the S&P 500. From 95 to 02 their worst down month was like 2-3%. They were way underlevaged and probably didn't use enough capital, those results should be far higher.

Anyway I think it's funny that some people here have said that hedge funds underperform the market (which as far as I'm aware is true), have way more volatility than the market (not true) and according to river are only available to professional investors (don't think this is true but might depend on how he's defining professional).

So.....professional investors would choose an asset which underperforms the market with more volatility. Anybody else see the break in logic here?
 
Key Characteristics of Hedge Funds
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  • Many hedge funds have as an objective consistency of returns and capital preservation rather than magnitude of returns.
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This is why they are low risk (volatility).

I feel I should clarify this. I didn't mean for this to be a proof or anything, my point was that if the best investment managers in the world have as an objective consistent returns and capital preservation, chances are that's what they're going to get, hence low volatility.
 
Having taken the risk of on average around 6% volatility vs like 17% for the S&P 500. From 95 to 02 their worst down month was like 2-3%. They were way underlevaged and probably didn't use enough capital, those results should be far higher.

Anyway I think it's funny that some people here have said that hedge funds underperform the market (which as far as I'm aware is true), have way more volatility than the market (not true) and according to river are only available to professional investors (don't think this is true but might depend on how he's defining professional).

Didn't borrow enough capital you mean! I'm no expert but my understanding is that hedge funds in general tend towards low volatility, low risk trades but then try to beef the correspondingly poor returns with heavy gearing. I've heard tell of 50:1 in many cases - certainly the leverage on top of leverage LTCM applied could result in almost 1000:1 leverage in some trades.

As I said though, referring to a fund as "underleveraged" can only be a very subjective assessment. Any leverage would be too much for a fund I would invest in.

So if you like, you can view it that there is both risk and there is exposure to risk. Hedge funds might be low risk but the exposure they have to that risk generally greatly exceeds the capital of the fund. Look at the mess Bear Sterns is in - here for example.

I think this is where to confusion is arising regarding the risk involved in hedge fund investments.

So.....professional investors would choose an asset which underperforms the market with more volatility. Anybody else see the break in logic here?

I'm not sure if you see too many professional investors investing in hedge funds - as Bill Bonner puts it, there is something almost noble in their ability to relieve the rich of vast sums of money in exchange for relatively poor returns.

No one likes the highwayman who robs the poor of their last pennies. But, who can fail to appreciate the polished society burglars, who pass among the rich only to relieve them of their diamonds and gold? What these super-rich hedge fund managers do is almost respectable: they separate the rich from their money! You can verify this for yourself. Just read from the Forbes list of rich people, where you will find hedge fund managers in droves, but we can guarantee you, not one hedge fund investor.
 
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Didn't borrow enough capital you mean! I'm no expert but my understanding is that hedge funds in general tend towards low volatility, low risk trades but then try to beef the correspondingly poor returns with heavy gearing. I've heard tell of 50:1 in many cases - certainly the leverage on top of leverage LTCM applied could result in almost 1000:1 leverage in some trades.

There seems to be a heavy fear of leverage on this board for some reason. My point was if you leveraged his fund to the same risk as the S&P he would have vastly outperformed the market.

As I said though, referring to a fund as "underleveraged" can only be a very subjective assessment. Any leverage would be too much for a fund I would invest in.

Many leveraged hedge funds are lower risk than the S&P. Would you invest in the S&P, a higher volatility investment?

So if you like, you can view it that there is both risk and there is exposure to risk. Hedge funds might be low risk but the exposure they have to that risk generally greatly exceeds the capital of the fund. Look at the mess Bear Sterns is in - here for example.

I think this is where to confusion is arising regarding the risk involved in hedge fund investments.

Ok I think I see where you're coming from here. You're point is that hedge funds have a greater risk of ruin? I don't know the answer to that but a lot of mutual funds disappear as well. This line of reasoning might also explain why people keep referring to LTCM even though it's just 1 hedge fund out of approx 10,000 (I think).

I'm not sure if you see too many professional investors investing in hedge funds - as Bill Bonner puts it, there is something almost noble in their ability to relief the rich of vast sums of money in exchange for relatively poor returns.

I already showed that hedge funds create positive alpha. I also showed they are low volatility. Therefore they are creating relatively (compared to the market) good returns on a risk adjusted basis.

Your point about risk of ruin is worth considering but I don't have any data or statistics to argue it one way or the other.
 
You showed that a particular hedge fund created alpha at some point in the past, which is not the same thing.

No; if you recall I linked a study which showed that Hedge funds created an alpha of 3.04% and L/S Hedge funds created an alpha of 5.41%. Here it is again.
 
There seems to be a heavy fear of leverage on this board for some reason. My point was if you leveraged his fund to the same risk as the S&P he would have vastly outperformed the market.

Leverage increases risk. Hence the fear. I can produce market beating returns by borrowing to buy units in a passive index tracker but there is a greater risk of significant loss of capital.

Many leveraged hedge funds are lower risk than the S&P. Would you invest in the S&P, a higher volatility investment?

Volatility in itself isn't necessarily an issue. I have investments in a number of highly volatile instruments - silver for example. However, if I use leverage I am putting a greater amount of my capital at risk. How many geared investors (via the so called carry trade) received margin calls during the US bond sell-off recently? I'll bet 30-yr US treasury bonds are normally considered a low volatility instrument.

Ok I think I see where you're coming from here. You're point is that hedge funds have a greater risk of ruin? I don't know the answer to that but a lot of mutual funds disappear as well. This line of reasoning might also explain why people keep referring to LTCM even though it's just 1 hedge fund out of approx 10,000 (I think).

Ruin is a bit strong and LTCM is the extreme example that can be used to push the general point - increased leverage increases your exposure to risk and hence results in a greater risk to your capital. The fund doesn't necessarily have to go bankrupt but a 20% loss of capital in one year will take years to recover from.

I already showed that hedge funds create positive alpha. I also showed they are low volatility. Therefore they are creating relatively (compared to the market) good returns on a risk adjusted basis.

Your point about risk of ruin is worth considering but I don't have any data or statistics to argue it one way or the other.

There are simply too many hedge funds now for it to be argued that they all beat the market. Some have incredible returns spanning decades but these are the exception not to rule. Remember past volatility is no guarantee of future volatility and heavily leveraged hedge funds run a very real risk of significant loss of capital. The fact that they are leveraged means that one wrong bet often forces margin calls that must be met by liquidating profitable positions - this is what happened with Amaranth and more recently Bear Sterns. I'm pretty sure I've seen signs of similar things happening in certain markets as well.

I'd go along with CapitalCCC's suggestion that hedge funds could form part of an investment strategy but not all. Depends on the fund though obviously.
 
There are simply too many hedge funds now for it to be argued that they all beat the market. Some have incredible returns spanning decades but these are the exception not to rule. Remember past volatility is no guarantee of future volatility and heavily leveraged hedge funds run a very real risk of significant loss of capital. The fact that they are leveraged means that one wrong bet often forces margin calls that must be met by liquidating profitable positions - this is what happened with Amaranth and more recently Bear Sterns. I'm pretty sure I've seen signs of similar things happening in certain markets as well.

I agree. Merrill Lynch did a research piece this year saying that Alpha had practically dissapeared from the hedge fund industry or at least to the extent that it was almost impossible to justify fees like 2% management fee plus 20% of profits. They argued that most hedge fund returns are coming from the broader market and can be replicated by indices. Not sure I fully agree but I certainly think it is harder for the hedge funds.

Hedge Funds are like any asset. They have their advantages and disadvantages and it comes down to individual investment decisions. I work on the buy side for an investment bank and we have invested money with hedge funds. However, the due dilligence that we go through before putting money in is quiet time consuming and we have access to the managers that the man on the street wouldn't have and there is no way that we would invest a cent without going through the process. I think that is what people mean when they say that the funds are probably not suitable for the ordinary Joe Soap investor who is used to long only mutual funds.
 
No; if you recall I linked a study which showed that Hedge funds created an alpha of 3.04% and L/S Hedge funds created an alpha of 5.41%. Here it is again.

From the abstract: 'We analyze the performance of a universe of about 3,500 hedge funds from the TASS database from January 1995 through April 2006'. Particular hedge funds, over a particular period in the past.
 
You showed that a particular hedge fund created alpha at some point in the past, which is not the same thing.

From the abstract: 'We analyze the performance of a universe of about 3,500 hedge funds from the TASS database from January 1995 through April 2006'. Particular hedge funds, over a particular period in the past.

That's a bit different then 'a particular' at 'some point in the past', it's a significant percentage of hedge funds over more than a decade. That's all I was taking issue with.
 
I'd go along with CapitalCCC's suggestion that hedge funds could form part of an investment strategy but not all. Depends on the fund though obviously.

I agree with that, I'd never suggest they should make up all of an investment strategy.

Hedge Funds are like any asset. They have their advantages and disadvantages and it comes down to individual investment decisions.

Completely agree.
 
Traditional.

Do you know of any studies that use multi-factor betas? Any hedge fund that simply used a momentum factor for example in the past could expect to show positive alpha using traditional beta, but I'd hardly use that as evidence of manager skill.
 
Redjoker that survey you mention (of hedge fund performance) has a major flaw - it excludes the hedge funds...and God there are many...that went belly up during the reporting period and so were not included by the end of the survey, this survivorship bias means that hedge fund surveys always overstate the performance of hedge funds and understate their volatility.
 
Redjoker that survey you mention (of hedge fund performance) has a major flaw - it excludes the hedge funds...and God there are many...that went belly up during the reporting period and so were not included by the end of the survey, this survivorship bias means that hedge fund surveys always overstate the performance of hedge funds and understate their volatility.

From the second sentence of the abstract:

"First, we analyze the potential biases in reported hedge fund returns, in particular survivorship bias and backfill bias, and attempt to create an unbiased return sample."

There was a whole section given to survivorship bias. They estimated it at 5.68%, which is far higher than any other survey had estimated it before. Brown, Goetzmann and Ibbotson (1999) estimated 3% from 1989–1995 as did Fung and Hsieh (2000) on the TASS database from 1994–1998. Barry (2003) using the TASS data from 1994 to 2001 estimated 3.8%. Ackermann, McEnally and Ravenscraft (1999) estimated a 0.2% survivorship bias which, according to Liang (2000), may be explained by compositional differences in the databases and different timeframes.

The figures I quoted were adjusted for this survivorship bias along with other potential biases.
 
Do you know of any studies that use multi-factor betas? Any hedge fund that simply used a momentum factor for example in the past could expect to show positive alpha using traditional beta, but I'd hardly use that as evidence of manager skill.

Yes; from page 12:

"Asness (2004a and 2004b) further proposed breaking hedge fund alpha into: 1) beta exposure to other hedge funds, and 2) manager skill alpha. Fund and Hsieh (2002 and 2004) analyzed hedge fund returns with traditional betas and non-traditional betas, which include trend following exposure (or momentum) and several derivative-based factors. They found that adding the non-traditional beta factors can explain up to 80% of the monthly return variation in hedge fund indexes. Although we agree that a portion of the hedge fund returns can be explained by non-traditional betas (or hedge fund betas), these non-traditional beta exposures are not readily available to individual or institutional investors. Since hedge funds are the primary way to gain exposure to these non-traditional betas, these non-traditional betas should be viewed as part of the value-added that hedge funds provide compared to traditional long-only managers."
 
From the second sentence of the abstract:

"First, we analyze the potential biases in reported hedge fund returns, in particular survivorship bias and backfill bias, and attempt to create an unbiased return sample." etc, etc, etc

Ah lads, I thought you were going to give us the basic facts . . . .
 
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