Hi Leaky
I don't think you are correct.
If you live in your home as your PPR for the entire period you own it, you cannot use the loss for CGT purposes.
However, if you let the home for 50% of the time you own it, you can claim 50% of the losses. Could this be what you are thinking about?
Thanks for moving this to Taxation.
My reasoning for thinking the loss is allowable is as follows.
A house (either PPR or non-PPR) is a chargeable asset for CGT. A list of non-chargeable assets is available on Revenue website in their leaflet CGT1 Guide to CGT, and it does not mention a PPR as a non-chargeable asset.
CGT does in fact apply to the sale of your PPR, it's just that a measure of relief (ppr relief) is given against the tax due. The relief is apportioned to exempt the period of occupancy (plus 1-year deemed occupancy). A lot of people think their PPR is exempt from CGT but don't realise that the tax is simply reduced by the ppr relief.
The first step in calculating PPR Relief is to calculate the gain on the disposal. When the gain has been established, the next step is to calculate the period of occupancy as a percentage of the period of ownership. If you owned the property for 10years and your total occupancy is 8years then your PPR Relief is against 8/10ths of the gain.
So, if your first step in calculating PPR relief is to establish the gain then if you make a loss on the sale of the property surely you do not need to proceed any further in the calculation - you have made a loss.
The loss itself would need to be a monetary loss. If indexation is used to arrive at a 'loss' figure then this is not an allowable loss as it is a no gain/no loss situation. Simply put, I think that if you buy a house for 300,00k and sell it for 200,000k then you have made a monetary loss of 100,000k.
Sorry, this was longer than I thought. I am open to correction and would like to hear other opinions on it.