H
Homer
Guest
Interesting to see all the conflicting opinions expressed on this issue.
The general principle is that, for full multiplicative odds to apply, the two bets must be completely independent. The bet described does not satisfy this requirement. The fact that on this occasion Hacketts chose to honour full multiplicative odds does not alter this general principle.
They may have decided that the degree of dependency was not such as to invalidate the overall odds offered or they may just have decided that it wasn't worth the hassle to dispute the odds offered.
I remember a case within the last few years where Paddy Power refused to pay full odds when a punter had a double on a player scoring first in a particular soccer match and his team winning that match. There was a bit of pubilicity about it in the papers and on the radio when they initially refused to pay out on the grounds that the bet was invalid. The eventual outcome was that they used handicap odds (allowing for a one goal handicap) in computing the odds on the second half of the bet. This struck me as a fair and reasonable compromise.
I'm also aware that bookies can sometimes slip up on this issue. Many years ago, a friend of mine had a winning double on a particular trainer and his stable jockey being the leading trainer and jockey respectively at Cheltenham, at full multiplicative odds. I doubt a similar mistake would be made nowadays.
Regards
Homer
The general principle is that, for full multiplicative odds to apply, the two bets must be completely independent. The bet described does not satisfy this requirement. The fact that on this occasion Hacketts chose to honour full multiplicative odds does not alter this general principle.
They may have decided that the degree of dependency was not such as to invalidate the overall odds offered or they may just have decided that it wasn't worth the hassle to dispute the odds offered.
I remember a case within the last few years where Paddy Power refused to pay full odds when a punter had a double on a player scoring first in a particular soccer match and his team winning that match. There was a bit of pubilicity about it in the papers and on the radio when they initially refused to pay out on the grounds that the bet was invalid. The eventual outcome was that they used handicap odds (allowing for a one goal handicap) in computing the odds on the second half of the bet. This struck me as a fair and reasonable compromise.
I'm also aware that bookies can sometimes slip up on this issue. Many years ago, a friend of mine had a winning double on a particular trainer and his stable jockey being the leading trainer and jockey respectively at Cheltenham, at full multiplicative odds. I doubt a similar mistake would be made nowadays.
Regards
Homer