I don't know if it is "of course" which is why I'm asking. The property is being sold as one property with one set of deeds, and with only one front door - not one front for each self-contained apartment.Of course it wouldn't come under the rent-a-room scheme.
It isn't a matter of "trying something on". I'm trying to discover whether such a set-up would legally be covered under rent-a-room.You could try it on but that would be an incredibly naive thing to do.
If you mean was the house built before 1963, then yes it was. Does the building of the house before 1963 affect rent-a-room? I would expect the house does have planning to split it, if it doesn't then I would not purchase it in any case.Is the house Pre 63 or have planning to be split into two? If so forget it...
Of course it wouldn't come under the rent-a-room scheme. You could try it on but that would be an incredibly naive thing to do.
Like I said, you can try it on. Make your tax return early, clearly state that the house is aWhy "of course"?
What about a house with a granny-flat as part of it?
I don't see any reason why that couldn't be rented to someone for €7,600 per annum tax free.
as stated on the link above, and wait for Revenue's response. I think there is a world of difference between a Granny Flat and the property above.Block of 3 self contained Flats With Rental Income
I still reckon that independent, professional advice is more or less essential in this case.
As mentioned in my OP the linked-to property is an example.Like I said, you can try it on. Make your tax return early, clearly state that the house is a as stated on the link above, and wait for Revenue's response.
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