Hi all,
Just looking for an opinion on this please.
I just bought a house and I am due to be married later this year. The plan is to put my soon to be wife's name on the deeds of the house as co-owner as soon as we marry and then I want to leave her the house in my will too.
I want to leave 40,000 euro to be split between my two children from a previous relationship (never married) as they are going to inherit a MASSIVE amount of money and property from their mum later in life anyway and they already have a 6 figure sum each going to them from another relative payable on their 18th birthday so basically the kids are very well set in life financially anyway, so due to this my aim is to look after my wife by leaving her the house and any of my monies (not much money left anyway due to house purchase) aside from the 40,000 which I intend to give to the kids so that they know I was thinking of them too.
My question is does all of this sound doable? Or is there any obvious reason why I cannot give the house to my wife? My concern here is that if the kids are somehow entitled to inherit a share of the house then it would obviously mean my wife would lose her home which seems extremely unfair and so I am trying to avoid that happening.
Thanks in advance
Just looking for an opinion on this please.
I just bought a house and I am due to be married later this year. The plan is to put my soon to be wife's name on the deeds of the house as co-owner as soon as we marry and then I want to leave her the house in my will too.
I want to leave 40,000 euro to be split between my two children from a previous relationship (never married) as they are going to inherit a MASSIVE amount of money and property from their mum later in life anyway and they already have a 6 figure sum each going to them from another relative payable on their 18th birthday so basically the kids are very well set in life financially anyway, so due to this my aim is to look after my wife by leaving her the house and any of my monies (not much money left anyway due to house purchase) aside from the 40,000 which I intend to give to the kids so that they know I was thinking of them too.
My question is does all of this sound doable? Or is there any obvious reason why I cannot give the house to my wife? My concern here is that if the kids are somehow entitled to inherit a share of the house then it would obviously mean my wife would lose her home which seems extremely unfair and so I am trying to avoid that happening.
Thanks in advance