Would the mother be willing to go to court and fight the transfer of the property to the child? Did she get independant legal advise (ie not the same solicitor as the father)at the time of the transfer in 2004, I believe there are rules on this, family home protection act springs to mind. What does the owner of the property have to gain by not repairing the property? The mother needs to go to a solicitor.
is the 'approx 30% of its market value' based on the 2004 market value? Was it independently valued at the time to arrive at this market value? What condition was the house in at that point in time?
"The consensus is that the owner should pay and this is not the first maintenance issue and prob won't be the last."
Nor really a consensus with the person who counts though, is it.
Sorry to be a jarring note, but the test to apply here is to ask the question as to what the parties would have agreed at the time had they addressed this issue, and whether this can be deemed to be an implied term of their agreement. In this exercise you would be guided to some extent by the terms which would be agreed if this were by 'bargain at arms length'.
If OP's parents had sold the house to one of the "Home Reversion" equity release type schemes, it is certainly possible (depending on age) that a payment of 30% of the value of the home is all they would have got, and that for this up-front payment, they would have left no equity behind them on their death.
None of the equity release companies in operation undertakes to maintain a house while the equity releasor is still living there. Unless the payment made was significantly less than what an equity release company would have paid, and it can be shown that there was some element of undue influence or duress, then the original bargain will stand. Absent any evidence of such agreement being implicit in the particular circumstances of this case, it does not seem to me that 'property owner must carry out maintenance' could reasonably be argued to form an implied term of the agreement
If, however, the mother and father actually owned the house for their lifetime, with reversion to the son, no such argument could reasonably be made]
Is there any of the money from the house sale left ?
Who is carrying insurance on the house ?
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