I'm hazarding a guess here, but when the marriage bar was in place women employees were entitled to a marriage gratuity and I think they were then no longer entitled to claim any social security benefits based on 'stamps' paid.
I wonder would that be what is meant?
edit: was just chatting to my Dad about this & he says (for the Civil Service at any rate) payment of the marriage gratuity was in recompense for women being removed from the pension scheme. When the marriage bar was lifted, some people returned their gratuity on resuming work & 'bought' back their pension rights.
don't know if that's any help!