thanks sadie -- did you actually exchange signed contracts ? if so i would have thought you can go specific performance -- my issue is that i can only go after 50% of the house (unless counsel says nail them for bad faith etc)
Why would you want to go down this road? It doesn't sound like you have any sort of case even for 50% of the property as the contracts were not correctly executed. You can go to court and argue your case but is the house really worth the hassle and thousands of euro in legal fees?
And I would say that if it can be proved that the intent to dispose of the property, then you might have a fairly strong case. Saying that there are a number of other parties whose representation would be required. You'd be seeking a court to determine an opinion of an Estate Agent !!
as only one of them signed and neither did their solicitor or auctioneer
I am worried about your solicitor. I don't know the answer to this question, but I would have thought that a solicitor should be able to advise without consulting a barrister unless there is something very odd in this which you have not told us. However, if the solicitor has decided that there is nothing you can do, then he might as well run it by a barrister for a second opinion.
Neither the solicitor nor the auctioneer is a party to the contract, so they would not sign.
The normal process is
The vendor's solicitors send you the contract.
You sign it and return it to them
They sign it and return a copy to you.
Your solicitor should have noted that the contract was not signed by both owners, but if he had noticed, what could he have done? Simply sent the contracts back to be signed, so you have not lost anything by their oversight.
sold after auction not under a hammer
she (solicitor) waffled something
Did you buy it at an auction?
Does this not make it a normal private treaty sale?
I am not a solicitor, so I just don't know.
If your solicitor is "waffling", it sounds as if you need a new solicitor.
it certainly goes against the common view that sales at auctions are binding if i cant enforce
it was after the auction as reserve wasnt met ( I was highest and only bidder)-- but it wasnt a private treaty sale as I signed a binding contract and paid a 10% deposit - from what I know with private treaty sale signed contracts only happen a few weeks later
Was the auctioneer actually involved i.e. did he get commission for the transaction?
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