hi i recently purchased an item from polish distributor of a swedish company for my own personal use
Following assumptions are made in my reading of your question, correct me if these are not the case :
1) that you are self-employed given that you have a VAT number.
2) You state the item was for personal use. Assume this means that it was not a purchase in the course of your business, i.e. either for re-sale in your business or as an expense in your business.
Zero rating of goods within the EU is intended to simplify the process of VAT registered traders purchasing business re-sale or expense goods from other VAT registered traders in other EU member states.
VAT is claimable / or zero-rateable by a trader only on those goods intended for the traders business use either as re-sale or expense. If that pump had been purchased in Ireland and VAT paid on it, and if it was for personal use, then you would not have been entitled to claim the VAT back on it. Further, if the payment had been from the business, the transaction would be treated as drawings or self-supplies. The Swedish company has no interest in what you do with the goods, merely that they have a VAT number and are, therefore, with that VAT number to hand, entitled to sell to you without charging VAT. The goods remain VATable goods, just that the VAT was not liable to have been charged at that point.
I am open to correction on this but had they charged the Swedish VAT on the goods as a personal and non-business transaction, no further Irish VAT would have been due. I am inclined to think therefore that it is a Swedish VAT issue. However the transaction should be treated as personal if it is such and all payments in respect of it go to drawings and not claimed in the business. There is also the posible Irish issue of incorrect use of your VAT number for purposes of not paying VAT on the purchase. I'm not sure what, if anything Revenue would make of this. Only likely to come up if you were audited by Revenue.