This is a very complex area. It is more fraught for the landlord than yourself. From the outline I think I can summarise the issues for you.
Your landlord will have reclaimed VAT when he acquired his interest in the property whether freehold or leasehold 10 years ago.
Say for example the vat reclaim was €100k
If he leased it and did not charge VAT this would be called making an exempt supply i.e. no VAT charged.
If you make an exempt supply, you cannot reclaim VAT.
Therefore, he would suffer a clawback of part of the €100k based on the formula
100 x Exempt lease term/20
Take a 5 year lease this would cost him a clawback of 25k.
Before July 2008, the rules were even more complex. A lease under 10 years was an exempt supply. However, the landlord could waive his exemption if he charged VAT on all his commercial rents
Since July 2008 the rules changed. Now, all leases start as non-vatable.
The landlord has the option to 1.e. charge VAT on the lease. If he does not the following rules apply
If he owns the freehold he would have to pay 1/20th of the VAT reclaim i.e. k annuallly for the lease term
If he is subletting a lease which he had got pre July 2008, in this case 10 years ago he would have to repay VAT equivalent to
100*10/20 i.e.the remaining lease term over 20 years. He would get some of this back on a subsequent lease if he chrged VAT on it.
I said it was complex. I was not joking.
However, as you can see the landlord has a lot at stake.
Depending on the money involved, there could be negotiation to compensate him for not charging VAT. However, this could be expensive.
if he got money from you, it would also need to be grossed up for Income tax or Corporation Tax and stamp duty.
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