Hi Louthlass,
Thanks for the very quick response. I understand that if the transaction was for the selling of property, then VAT would be payable. In this case it was for a service they provided for us in relation to a Deed. I enclose the wording but with any identification material removed/changed.
Professional Fee raised in connection with all work undertaken in respect of the negotiation and completion of the Deed of Consent relating to <Property> and for legal services based on time worked, financial value of advice, skill employed, complexity of issues raised, responsibility carried, speed of response, for attending and advising throughout, for general care and attention and other relevant factors in accordance with the Solicitors Remuneration Orders (1976)
The reason for my question is about this type of transaction - there are many going on, and the very small amount of information I gleaned from the following:
VAT on imported services is generally charged at the same rate as if the service was supplied by a UK business. Exports of services are generally zero-rated. See our guide: [broken link removed]. However the rules can be complex depending on the circumstances, eg if you are supplying a service to a customer based overseas but with an office in the UK. If you are in any doubt, ask your accountant or contact the HMRC National Advice Service Enquiry Line on Tel 0845 010 9000.
Would this additional information make a difference to your original assessment ?
Thank you again for your input and help
Warwick