When I approached my landlord regarding the rent relief I should receive, he then advised me that he does not own the property and the landlord lives in England.
Without him actually saying it, I assumed no tax was paid on the rent I've paid to him, despite
the fact of signed receipts from him.
My question is that does this effect me with the revenue if the tax wasn't paid? My opinion would be that it wouldn't as I've paid the rent to a person who portrayed themselves as the owner and that's the end of any tax implications for me outside of the relief.
However as discussed here
it seems that this may not be the case. I realize it has been discussed in depth already but just wondering if anyone has anything else to add, as I can't see how a tenant paying rent can be stung for a landlord's tax.
To me it would defy all logic if there is tax due on undeclared income then it should be down to the person who sent it out of the country ,or a person who knowingly assisted the tax invasion, or it should be levied against the property but not the tenant.