I have a property in the UK - a 3 bed semi which is has been converted to 2 bedrooms - I have had the property valued and have been advised that if it was still at 3 bed then the valuation would have been for a figure £20k£25k more - does this make sense? The square footage of the house is the same and ok I would have expected the valuation to be a little less for a 2 bedroom rather than a 3 bedroom house but not a minimum of £20k! The house had already been converted to 2 bedrooms when I bought it many years ago and the next door house was also on the market at the time for just £2k more at the time with 3 bedrooms but the 3rd bedroom is so small in these houses, the 2 bedroom suited me better - would appreciate any comments - thank you