Very narrow query here but views very welcome. Father paid fees for a 2 year postgraduate course I was on in 2001 (course qualified for relief). Was 22 yo at time but in "full-time" education on course. Father wrote letter in 2003 seeking tax relief on fees paid but was rejected by means of a very short letter which simply quoted the definition of "dependant" from S.474 of the TCA 1997:
""dependant", in relation to an individual, means a spouse or child of the individual or a person in respect of whom the individual is or was the legal guardian;"
Let it go at the time but have just rediscovered the rejection letter. I know that most people would interpret "child" to mean someone U18. But have just discovered the following definition of dependant in relation to health expenses relief:
You can claim Medical Expenses incurred by you:
- On your own behalf
- On behalf of a dependant. (A dependant is any relative of yours or any other person who at any time during the year of claim is aged 65 years or over or who is permanently incapacitated by reason of mental or physical infirmity.)
- On behalf of a relative. A relative is defined as:
- Husband, wife, ancestor, lineal descendant, brother or sister
- Mother or father of your spouse
- Brother or sister of your spouse
- Spouse of your son or daughter
- Your child, Any other child, who in the year of the claim, is in your custody and maintained at your expense and under 18 years of age, or if over 18 years of age, is receiving full-time education.
Granted, the statutory definition of "dependant" when it comes to relief for tuition fees is far narrower. But if it was intended to apply only to a "child" under the age of 18, shouldn't that be specified? Also, just how many "children" (if the definition is supposed to be understood as referring to U18s) would be doing the undergraduate and postgraduate courses listed as eligible for relief ? Does it not defeat the purpose of the relief if it only applies to fees paid for children U18? I know my father is technically out of time to apply for relief but if the revenue made a mistake in 2003, I don't think that should bar him from claiming some dough back now.
I realise this is a narrow query but I would welcome any views to help me decide whether I should argue the toss with the revenue!