The Official Assignee does treat Private Pensions and Public Pensions differently. For example, in calculating the Income Payments Order for private sector employees he does not allow any contributions to a pension plan, whereas a public sector worker is allowed to maintain their contributions (presumably on the basis that the pension contributions for public sector employees are deducted pursuant to Statute.)
Would you mind elaborating on this particular section please?
In brief, If the OA is calculating an Income Payments Order for a public sector employee, he will allow the employee to continue contributing towards their pension, whereas he will not allow a private sector employee to continue contributing towards their pension.
..If the OA is calculating an Income Payments Order for a public sector employee, he will allow the employee to continue contributing towards their pension..
Jim Stafford
Question:
Bankrupt aged 50 with no income
Has a pension valued say 300k that can provide him with an income of say 5k per annum
What does OA do?
Can he take the 300k and leave the bankrupt without any current or future retirement (or any other type) income?
Hi Silvio,
Any info on this page help?
[broken link removed]
Cheers,
Breakonthru
Notwithstanding the fact that we have "substantially different legislation" (not that I know the difference) do you think it's likely the position here will be influenced in any way by the UK decision?
What I really want to know us what happens in a private sector employment where membership of the occupational pension scheme is a condition of employment?
Works fine and thanksHi Silvio,
That link was - [broken link removed]
Hope it works now.
We use cookies and similar technologies for the following purposes:
Do you accept cookies and these technologies?
We use cookies and similar technologies for the following purposes:
Do you accept cookies and these technologies?