Well, it's an offence to make a false Statutory Declaration.
Again, the landlord does not have to prove that he or his family member intends to sleep in the property.
Also, bear in mind that a sitting tenant has a right of first refusal if the property becomes available for letting within six months of the termination of the tenancy or the resolution of any dispute in this regard by the RTB.
I don't make the rules! I'm just reflecting what the legislation actually says.
If a property owner wants vacant ownership of his property to store his golf clubs (or whatever), well, that's his prerogative. It is his property.
Yes, but there's no suggestion that the landlord in this case has not met his contractual or statutory obligations.By agreeing to take on a tenant he should be aware that certain contractual obligations now apply to future use of said property.
Well, a tenancy can only be terminated on certain statutory grounds and if the property becomes available for letting again within 6 months the current tenants have a first right of refusal.If the property is taken off the market it should be for a minimum amount of time, for a verifiable reason.
Yes, but there's no suggestion that the landlord in this case has not met his contractual or statutory obligations.
His current statutory obligations are a joke though.
It's starting to sound like Bull McCabe here.can put someone out of their home
I would disagree. It's someone else's home now. By agreeing to take on a tenant he should be aware that certain contractual obligations now apply to future use of said property. If the property is taken off the market it should be for a minimum amount of time, for a verifiable reason. And if someone isn't willing to be a landlord on that basis then they've no business, ahem, being in that business.
It's starting to sound like Bull McCabe here.
The landlord *owns* the property and is entitled to use it, let it, dispose of it, leave it empty or whatever they wish to do.
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