A guy that I work with was placed on temporary lay-off since last friday, he called into work today naturally to enquire if I knew when there would be work again, unfortunately I was not in a position to tell him when as due to the current economic slowdown (construction industry) it will be when there is work there to be done. He told me that he is thinking that he that he might fly home again for a while (czech republic- went home 3 weeks ago for a visit and only gave 2.5 days notice to employer - our annual leave is in august and christmas when the factory closes for aprox 2.5 weeks each time). Since January he has been out of the country for 28 work days which were not scheduled annual leave days (both 3 wks at a time).
Would I be correct in saying that if no work turns up within 8 weeks that he will not be eligable for redundency as he was not in the country therefore he was not available for work - he has been working with the company since mid August 04.
Would I be correct in saying that if no work turns up within 8 weeks that he will not be eligable for redundency as he was not in the country therefore he was not available for work - he has been working with the company since mid August 04.