Suppose Alice and Bob (who are not married) jointly buy a property. At a certain point, Alice decides, with the consent of Bob, to move into the property and take sole responsibility for the mortgage. Bob does not reside at the property and is happy to walk away from the property/mortgage as soon as Alice is in a position to arrange her own finance.
Does this situation give rise to an income tax liability on the part of Bob? For example, suppose Alice makes mortgage payments of €12,000 over the course of a year consisting of €5,000 principal and €7,000 interest. Since Bob's name is still on the mortgage, is Bob considered to be notionally in receipt of 50% of this and liable to pay tax on €6,000? Does the presence or absence of a tenancy agreement have any bearing on the tax position? What if Alice over/underpays the capital portion of the mortgage?
Thanks,
Phil